Can you provide a service to someone without telling them that it will incur a charge and then at a later date send them an invoice for the service.

In this case the service was offered and not asked for.

I would need to check, but I believe all costs have to be discussed at the point of agreeing to the contract.

In a word, no.

You can send them a bill, and they may pay without questioning it, but they are well within their rights to refuse to pay; especially if they can prove they didn't solicit the service.

OK so next question.

This is regarding private health care.

If you recieve a letter before an appointment telling you that "any treatments given additional to the consultation may incur charges" would you then expect to be told before these treatments that they were going to incur a charge?

I have recieved a bill with an additional charge for a test (not a treatment) that I had assumed was part of the consultation as there was no mention of any charge for it whatsoever during the consultation.

Not an answer to your question, but nearly all tests and treatments are charged as additions to any consultations in private healthcare.

It's going to be down to lawyers I suspect. You can quite reasonably argue that any form of test is part of diagnosis, not treatment I would have thought.

It will also depend on the small print in your policy

I don't have one.

This was a paid for appointment. The first time I've had a private appointment.

If I ever have one again I'll be asking if there's any charge for evertime the consultant moves or beathes.

No, tht's barristers

You paid for a consultation and only that. If a test was required, ideally you should have been informed but this could be in the form of notices etc rather than someone telling you that you need a test and it's going to cost x amount.

You probably aren't the first to complain about this so would imagine things would be in place that would mean you were aware, even if you weren't actually aware.